Philosopher AI
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Do bacteria not reproduce asexually? Do plants not reproduce asexually?
What does it mean for an organism to reproduce asexually? What is the process of reproduction in humans, with regard to sex and sexual intercourse? I would posit that this human reproductive process involves two individuals, each contributing genetic material to produce offspring. If one were to remove either individual from this scenario, then their contribution of genes would not be passed on. This seems like a necessary feature for something to qualify as sexual reproduction.
Let us look at other organisms. The process of bacterial reproduction is different from humans -- their genetics are stored in a single cell, rather than two distinct cells. Let us further assume that this one-celled organism reproduces by dividing itself into two separate cells.
Let us look at what this would mean for the genetic contribution of each bacterium. Both cells will have identical genomes, but in order to reproduce sexually, the genes must be different (and located on two distinct chromosomes). This does not seem to qualify as sexual reproduction.
What about plant reproduction? If we look at the process of asexual reproduction in plants, then it seems to not involve two distinct organisms (as is necessary for sexual reproduction). Instead, a single organism produces another identical copy. This does seem like a good definition of 'asexual' -- that there is only one parent.
We have established that bacteria reproduce asexually, by dividing into two cells which are genetically identical. This is not sexual reproduction, since there are no distinct parent organisms contributing DNA to the offspring.
We have established that plants reproduce asexually by producing genetically identical offspring (clones) of the parent. This is also not sexual reproduction, since there are no distinct organisms contributing DNA to the offspring.